Thursday, July 17, 2008

Denominations and Bible versions

I think that most English Bible translators hope that their translation of the Bible will serve the needs of more than one church denomination. It is interesting, however, to note the denominational background (or funding) for some English Bible versions. In this post I'll note denominational connections. But before doing so, I want to emphasize that many, if not most, of those who have translated and published these versions do not wish for them to be thought of as denominational versions. In my own years of study of English Bible versions I have found very little evidence of denominational bias in translations. (There is greater ideological or theological bias, but that bias is not limited to beliefs of single denominations, except in the case of the NWT.) So, please do not take away from this post that the versions mentioned here are denominational versions. They are not denominational versions, except for the NWT and the Catholic versions (which are also used by some Protestants, as "Protestant" versions are used by some Catholics). These versions just originated with a denomination or had funding from a denomination or an organization association with a denomination.

Here are denominational connections for some English Bible versions:
  • KJV - Church of English (Anglican)
  • NAB - Catholic
  • JB/NJB - Catholic
  • NIV - Christian Reformed impetus, but began with an inter-denominational translation committee
  • NWT - Jehovah's Witnesses
  • God's Word - Lutheran (Missouri Synod)
  • HCSB - Southern Baptist (see Kevin Sam's recent blog post; I disagree with Sam if he is saying that there is Baptist influence in the HCSB text itself)
  • NCV - Churches of Christ
  • Tanakh: The Holy Scriptures - Jewish
  • "Our New Bible" (version name not chosen yet) - United Methodist (but ecumenical)
Please feel free to correct me if I have erred anywhere. And please comment on other denominational connections with specific Bible versions, if you are aware of any.

Friday, July 11, 2008

Hebrews 2:7

Nathan has asked John and myself to post about Psalm 8:5 in Hebrews 2:7. This is a fascinating issue. I will only look at a few points relevant to the Greek version of this verse. First, the author of Hebrews quotes exactly from the copy of the LXX as we know it today.
    ἠλάττωσας αὐτὸν βραχύ τι παρ ἀγγέλους Psalm 8:5

    ἠλάττωσας αὐτὸν βραχύ τι παρ' ἀγγέλους Hebrews 2:7
But the Hebrew is
    vattechassereihu me'at, mei'elohim

    You have made him a little lower than Elohim
The King James creates an agreement between the passage in the Psalms and in Hebrews.
    For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels, Ps. 8:5

    Thou madest him a little lower than the angels; Hebrews 2:7
It is worth noting that the Vulgate has "angels" while Jerome's Iuxta Hebraicum has "God" and the Pagnini translation has "angels" again (Excuse my English). Of the Reformation versions, we see,

"God" Luther, Geneva, ERV, RSV, NRSV
"angels" Coverdale, Bishop's, KJV
"heavenly beings" ESV, (T)NIV

As an aside, this might point to Luther and Geneva favouring the Iuxta Heb. or the Hebrew itself, and Coverdale depending more on Pagnini. However, the translation that Nathan points to uses "the powers that be" for elohim. Perhaps that is the meaning suggested by the use of "angels" in Greek. There is a suggestion that the meaning of elohim is related to that of ἐξουσία in Rom. 13:1
    Everyone must submit himself to the governing authorities ἐξουσίαις
It seems that in Rom. 8:38, ἄγγελοι (angels) are related to ἀρχαὶ (principalities) and δυνάμεις (powers).
    For I am persuaded, that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come, Rom. 8:38.
It is also worth noting that the LXX translates elohim as "angels" on other occasions as well, notably Deut. 32:43 and Psalm 97:7. This is then quoted in Hebrews 1:6,
    Let all God’s angels worship him.
So, when we see "angels" in this verse, it is a translation of elohim. Is the author of Hebrews saying that the elohim worship Christ? I hope this provides some background to Nathan's post and provokes a little thought about elohim and "angels." I have not commented on the other aspect of this post, that the verb should read, "he requires little."

Nathan has written a post presenting the possible translation,
    And You made him so that he requires little from the powers that be. Ps. 8:5.

God’s Long Nostrils

You gotta see it to believe it: God’s Long Nostrils at Scotteriology.

Romans 3:12

Here is an interesting verse where I think the ESV did the right thing and kept the KJV tradition. It also brings up the question of how Paul cited the LXX. In Romans 3:4, Paul cites Ps. 51:4,
    so that you may be justified in your words
    and blameless in your judgment. Ps. 51:4 ESV

    "That you may be justified in your words,
    and prevail when you are judged." ESV

    ὅπως ἂν δικαιωθῇς ἐν τοῖς λόγοις σου
    καὶ νικήσῃς ἐν τῷ κρίνεσθαί σε Ps. 51:4

    ὅπως ἂν δικαιωθῇς ἐν τοῖς λόγοις σου
    καὶ νικήσεις ἐν τῷ κρίνεσθαί σε Rom. 3:4
Of course, Ps. 51:4 in the ESV is translated from the Hebrew.

    לְמַעַן תִּצְדַּק בְּדָבְרֶךָ
    תִּזְכֶּה בְשָׁפְטֶךָ


    That thou mightest be justified in thy sayings,
    and mightest overcome when thou art judged. Rom. 3:4 KJV
However, you can see that in P 51:4, the phrase "in your judgment" is active and in the LXX and Rom. 3:4 the phrase is passive, "when you are judged." This caused Luther quite a bit of consternation. Apparently Calvin was ahead of Luther in realizing that the Hebrew of Ps. 51:4 said "in your judgment."

Many other translations have decided to simply tidy up the discrepancy between Ps. 51:4 and Rom. 3:4. Here are a few.
    So that you may be justified in your words,
    and prevail in your judging." NRSV

    "So that you may be proved right when you speak
    and prevail when you judge." NIV

    "He will be proved right in what he says,
    and he will win his case in court." NLT
Here are some of my questions. Is the Hebrew vague or ambiguous? Did Paul know what the Hebrew was for this psalm? What do we do when two different interpretations for one original verse appear in the scriptures?

For Augustine this lead to his belief that the LXX was inspired as a translation. So for him the original Hebrew was inspired and the LXX was inspired. He actually thought that the LXX must have been a better translation of the Hebrew than Jerome's Latin Vulgate, because the LXX was translated by a "comittee" and Jerome was only one person.

I like the fact that the ESV retains the original sense of what Paul wrote, even though the sense is very odd indeed. Is God judged?

Thursday, July 10, 2008

Putting paid to the complementarian position on 1 Corinthians 14:33-34

The title of a post at the Evangelical Textual Criticism blog, International SBL Meetings in Auckland, New Zealand, gave me little clue to the great significance of its content, the second paragraph. I would of course like to see the paper of which this is a summary. But it seems to have overthrown one of the main bases within the New Testament text for the complementarian position, and demonstrated why many translations of the passage in question, 1 Corinthians 14:33-34, are in error.

The standard Greek texts, Nestle-Aland 27th edition and UBS 4th edition, put a paragraph break in the middle of verse 33 and no punctuation at all to separate it from verse 34. That is, they associate the phrase translated "as in all the churches of the saints" with the following main clause rather than the preceding one. As such they depart from the tradition established by KJV and before that by whoever divided the text into verses, and strengthened by the English Revised Version (1881) which indicates a paragraph break at the start of verse 34. But by the time of the RSV (1946/1971) the interpretation had changed, and this translation has the same breaks as the Greek texts, as do NIV (1978/1984) and NRSV (1989). But TNIV (2001/2005), has reverted almost to the ERV punctuation, with a new paragraph at the start of verse 34; as such it reflects the preference of Gordon Fee, one of its translation team, as expressed in his 1987 commentary on 1 Corinthians. Indeed Fee writes (p.697 footnote 49):
The idea that v. 33b goes with v. 34 seems to be a modern phenomenon altogether.
What was the reason for the change between ERV and RSV? Was there some technicality in the Greek text, not recognised by earlier scholars or only found in more recent manuscripts, which suggested the paragraph division in the scholarly texts? Or might it just be that editors preferred a reading which strengthened Paul's supposed instruction in verse 34 that women should be silent? After all, in Romans 16:7 the same Greek text editors, with no manuscript evidence at all, supplied the accents for the unattested male name Junias rather than for the well known female name Junia, for which the only possible explanation is a theological preference. If they preferred a "complementarian" reading in Romans, it seems quite plausible that they made a similar decision in 1 Corinthians.

And that suspicion seems to me to be confirmed by the paper presented at SBL in New Zealand. For the paper concludes that
the overwhelming consensus among the manuscripts [is] that the major punctuation or segmentation break should be at the end of v. 33, not in the middle of the verse. This would result in "as in all the churches of the saints" being applied to the principle of God being one of order, not disorder, and would negate applying this WS [i.e. "as" in Greek] clause to verses 34-35.
Of course this conclusion does not in itself invalidate the statement that (literally) "the women should be silent in the churches". But it does reduce the emphasis on it and the grounds for taking this as a rule for all time rather than a situational and temporary one. It also opens the way for two alternative interpretations of verses 34-35, one that these are words of the Corinthians which Paul rejects in verse 36; and the other, preferred by Fee with some slight manuscript support, that these verses are not an original part of the letter but a marginal gloss incorporated by mistake into the text. Both of these alternatives work only if the "as" phrase (not a clause!) at the end of verse 33 is taken with what comes before it.

Once again TNIV has made the right decision here, anticipating the results presented in the SBL paper and returning to the paragraph division of ERV, which was abandoned for no good reason.

Wednesday, July 09, 2008

The Bible doesn't say

In a maelstrom of otherwise incomprehensible verbiage, a note of sanity emerges. Here is my number one pick of the day. Doug writes, The Bible doesn't say. Words to heal the wounded soul.
In memory of a long forgotten meme, I would like to mention some spoof posts - only these are not spoofs. Let's laugh, cry and share some fellow feeling.

Gone with the wind pulls a post. Absolutely unheard of but in a good cause.

Bard and Bible recommends an illustrated abridged paraphrase edition of Shakespeare for my reading pleasure (in the comment section.)

Dave posts a picture of him and his Mom. Condolences, Dave, and what a great picture.

TC and Rick both make a statement of affirmation for the TNIV

Some serious study says "I think. I've confused myself." Wow, do I ever know what that feels like. Great conclusion, 'cause I so identify. Anyway, I love this blog.

And in a new development, the term "ESV-onlyism" is gaining currency. Several bloggers have also weighed in on the term "essentially literal" so we should do a tour on this. And then my next post is going to be on a verse that the ESV does right.

It all started at Tim Challies. Several bloggers responded. El Shaddai, TC, and CD-host. In the process of reading these posts I thought I would track down the phrase "ESV-onlyism." This is a neutral study, BTW.
    "I am an ESV-onlyist right now, but most of the scripture tucked in my memory is in King James English." Oct. 17, 2007

    Show me where God told me ESVOnlyism is wrong. March 11, 2008

    "In some gatherings there seems to be a ESV-onlyism developing. Anyone else notice that?" April 11, 2008

    "Yes, I’m the only ESV-onlyist I know LOL. Seriously, it is a cool translation." April 16, 08

    I've got a big beef. In fact I'm starting to put together materials for a series on my blog "ESV-onlyism". June 13, 2008

    Do I see ESV-onlyism on the horizon? June 24, 2008
I don't think this is really about the ESV, but about our attitudes to Bible translation, in general, and "onlyism" in particular. For example, I got quite a shock out of this verse the other day,
    Obeie ye to youre souereyns, and be ye suget to hem; Wycliff

    Obeye the that have the oversight of you and submit youre selves to them. Tyndale

    Obey them that have the rule over you, and submit yourselves. KJV

    Obey your prelates and be subject to them. D-R

    Obey your leaders and submit to them, ESV

    Obey your leaders and submit to their authority. NIV

    Have confidence in your leaders and submit to their authority. TNIV

    Gehorcht euren Lehrern und folgt ihnen

    (Listen to your teachers and follow them,) Did I somehow forget how to read German! Is that really what it says? Somebody?

    Be yielding unto them who are guiding you, and submit yourselves Rotherham
So are the words "obey" "rulers" and "authority" in the Greek? Weeeeel, not really. Rotherham is pretty accurate. Don't be an "onlyist," whatever you do. That is more important than which translation you choose.

Monday, July 07, 2008

NLT Blog: Words in the New Living Translation

Several times I have wished that there would be a blog to promote the NLT (New Living Translation). Tonight I found out that there is one. In one of its first posts, Keith Williams responds to a post by Tim Challies. Tim prefers the ESV. In his post he criticizes translations like the NLT which are not "essentially literal." I left a comment on Tim's post.

Thursday, July 03, 2008

Elsewhere

I am sorry to be absent from here. I note with delight all the memes and mirth. I have been elsewhere protesting against certain teachings which wrongfully derive from the doctrine of the subordination of women. (which is in itself wrong, but I don't expect to convince anyone of that who is not already convinced.) If you wish please add your comments to the thread. 1159 comments and still climbing.

Easy as 1-2-3

By posting this I'm not just trying to lure you from the respectable Better Bibles Blog to my weird Lingamish blog. But I do want to bring to your attention a post with a rather interesting comment thread: Beg to differ. In this post I listed 9 axioms of Bible translation and begged my readers to differ. Differ they did. In fact, Iyov wasn't sure he could agree with any of them. You might check out the list and see if you agree with what I've written, but I wanted to make sure BBB readers had a chance to think about this quote (thanks again to Iyov):

As will be seen in Chapter 7, in which basic problems of style are considered for languages with a long literary tradition and a well-established traditional text of the Bible, it is usually necessary to have three types of Scriptures: (1) a translation which will reflect the traditional usage and be used in the churches, largely for liturgical purposes (this may be called an “ecclesiastical translation”), (2) a translation in the present-day literary language, so as to communicate to the well-educated constituency, and (3) a translation in the “common” or “popular” language, which is known to and used by the common people, and which is at the same time acceptable as a standard for published materials.

Source: Eugene Nida and Charles Taber’s The Theory and Practice of Translation (p. 31)

What do you think? Is this a helpful way of looking at Better Bibles? In your circumstances, what would be 1, 2, and 3? I've got some good candidates for #1 and #3 but I still haven't found what I'm looking for in a #2. How about you?

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Monday, June 30, 2008

Scholarly Legends

Well, I guess I’ve been tagged by David. Even though I’m supposed to be packing for the first of my summer travels which start tomorrow, I’ll hold forth on something that has been bothering me for the last week.

In 1991 the most eloquent curmudgeon in the field of linguistics, Geoffry Pullum, a professor at — of all places — UC Santa Cruz, that most laid back of all the campuses of the University of California, published a volume of wickedly pointed, but very entertaining, essays about the state and practice of the the field of linguistics, entitled The Great Eskimo Vocabulary Hoax. The essay that gave the book its title can be read online in a rough OCR’ed version here.

Cutting to the chase, the punchline is this: the CW about Eskimos having hundreds of word for snow is hooey. Baloney. The scholarly equivalent of an urban legend.

Pullum draws on the work of a linguistic anthropologist and Mayanist (!) by the name of Laura Martin, a professor at Cleveland State and one time chair of the Department of Anthropology. She traced the growth of this tidbit of CW from Franz Boas’ introduction to the original Handbook of North American Indians, where he cited 4 words, to the full blown legend it is now. In the early 80s she read a paper on the topic at the annual meeting of the American Anthropological Association (I was in the audience) and circulated a long essay meticulously documenting the whole history, but the American Anthropologist would only publish a much reduced version as a research report (vol. 88.2:418-23 [1986]).

But Pullum’s point isn’t really about Eskimo — interesting though that may be. As he himself says:
“[This essay] isn't about Eskimo lexicography at all, though I'm sure it will be taken to be. What it's actually about is intellectual sloth. .... The tragedy is not that so many people got the facts wrong; it is that in the mentally lazy and anti-intellectual world we live in today, hardly anyone cares enough to think about trying to determine what the facts are.” (pg. 171)
Well. I’m here today to grouse about a similar urban legend in Biblical Studies with ugly implications for Bible translation. Dr. Jim West brought it up again last week in a piece called “Why Modern Translations of the Bible Bungle it” and I rankled. The whole piece is based on just a scholarly legend not unlike the Great Eskimo Vocabulary Hoax.

The arugment of the piece is this:
The times of the Bible were very different from ours.
The Bible needs to express these differences.
Therefore the language of the Bible in translation should sound different.
I’m tempted to stop here and let the reader work out all the fallacies in that reasoning which should be perfectly obvious when it is laid out as a syllogism. But the fact that huge segments of the church have bought this bogus line for so long suggests I had better be more explicit.

The times of the Bible were very different from ours. This is no doubt true. We have more stuff -- a lot more stuff. I don’t mean that we’re more materialist, I mean that science and technology have given us lots of manufactured goods that either didn’t exist or were only available to the wealthiest people of those days. We have indoor plumbing; they were lucky to have outhouses. We have cars and planes. The had horses and camels, and they walked a lot. We have machines, washing machines, dishwashers, and printing presses; they had slaves and scribes.

But, I ask, just how relevant is that to the message of the Bible?

Hardly at all.

Why does the Bible speak to us today? It speaks to us because it’s about human nature. It’s about loyalty and honor, love and respect, and trusting God. These things (and their opposites) haven’t changed a whit since Adam. (If they have, then, as Paul said, we of all men are to be most pitied.)

The Bible needs to express the difference of our worlds. Here I take issue with the premise right up front. The stuff of the Bible that is of interest are those things about human nature. The differences in the worlds and worldviews is irrelevant, beyond the fact that knowing something about them helps us to better understand the motivations and reactions of the people.

So you can see why I reject the conclusion.

Do I think we should go around changing pigs into sheep? or wine into pulque?

Not at all.

But there is an ocean of difference between substitutions of that magnitude and using language that drops a veil between the heart of the reader and the Word of God (Mt. 25:12):
But he answered and said, Verily I say unto you, know you not. (KJV)
But he answered, ‘Truly, I say to you, I do not know you.’ (ESV)
Instead of
But he replied, ‘I assure you: I do not know you!’ (HSCB)
(Notice the Message is way off base here, but in a different way:
He answered, ‘Do I know you? I don’t think I know you.’)

Now I don’t think it’s an accident that so many students of the Bible fall prey to the mistake of believing in the essential foreignness of the Scriptures. It has an easy explanation.

Anyone who is seriously interested in studying the Bible will study Greek and Hebrew in order to dig deeper. And, as anyone who has learned a second language as an adult can tell you, it takes a very long time before that language stops sounding foreign, even if you are moderately fluent in it. Often you’re a half beat behind as the native speakers rattle on. And they are constantly saying things in ways you’d never have thought of in a million years.

And for languages that you don’t have to actually use in live interaction, the matter is worse. It is the rarest of people for whom written languages become truly alive.

The distance that so very many Bible scholars feel when approach the Scripture in the original languages is not essential to the Scripture. It arises unnoticed as the product of language learning. They feel distance when reading in Greek and Hebrew and think that the distance is in the text. They read passages they don’t fully understand and think that therefore the author was expressing a mystery.

Not at all. The NT is natural in Greek as the Egyptian papyri show. It should be natural in English.

That foreignness stuff, that’s a scholarly legend.

Sunday, June 29, 2008

Rich Rhodes seen fishing with Elvis

Can you explain the disappearance?

Summer Fun: Word Play in Paul

I had been thinking about a good topic for summer fun. We had Psalm 68 last year, which was wonderful, but I thought we should do something Greek this year.

It must be ESP, because just this afternoon, I was thinking of all the good buddies who blog about Greek, and then I decided to choose "Word play in Paul. " And lucky for me, Iyov has given the topic a great introduction, so I don't have to do that. (As they say, great minds think alike.) So, I hereby second the opening of the summer blog play on Paul! We can do a round up at the end of the month or the end of the summer.

The object will be to write something about the language that Paul uses. Is it influenced by Hebrew, by his rabbinical training, by Greek rhetoric, or what? I have not the remotest clue, so I await your contributions eagerly. Post a sample translation or a passage or discussion of some aspect of Paul's use of language. Examples and comparisons can come from anywhere in the Bible. How does he use the Hebrew Bible, for example. Link to something you have already written, contribute whatever you like. A picture of the hippo dressed up as Paul would also count as an entry.

Here is my meager opening sample, from Romans 15:30-16:2,
    30 παρακαλῶ δὲ ὑμᾶς ἀδελφοί διὰ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ καὶ διὰ τῆς ἀγάπης τοῦ πνεύματος συναγωνίσασθαί μοι ἐν ταῖς προσευχαῖς ὑπὲρ ἐμοῦ πρὸς τὸν θεόν

    31 ἵνα ῥυσθῶ ἀπὸ τῶν ἀπειθούντων ἐν τῇ Ἰουδαίᾳ καὶ ἡ διακονία μου ἡ εἰς Ἰερουσαλὴμ εὐπρόσδεκτος τοῖς ἁγίοις γένηται

    32 ἵνα ἐν χαρᾷ ἐλθὼν πρὸς ὑμᾶς διὰ θελήματος θεοῦ συναναπαύσωμαι ὑμῖν 33 ὁ δὲ θεὸς τῆς εἰρήνης μετὰ πάντων ὑμῶν ἀμήν

    16:1 συνίστημι δὲ ὑμῖν Φοίβην τὴν ἀδελφὴν ἡμῶν οὖσαν καὶ διάκονον τῆς ἐκκλησίας τῆς ἐν Κεγχρεαῖς

    2 ἵνα αὐτὴν προσδέξησθε ἐν κυρίῳ ἀξίως τῶν ἁγίων καὶ παραστῆτε αὐτῇ ἐν ᾧ ἂν ὑμῶν χρῄζῃ πράγματι καὶ γὰρ αὐτὴ προστάτις πολλῶν ἐγενήθη καὶ ἐμοῦ αὐτοῦ


    30 I urge you, brothers, by our Lord Jesus Christ and by the love of the Spirit, to struggle together with me in prayers on my behalf to God.

    31 that I may be rescued from the unbelievers in Judea and that my ministry which is for Jerusalem may be acceptable to the saints,

    32
    so that I may come to you with joy by God's will and together with you be refreshed. 33 The God of peace be with you all. Amen.

    16:1 I stand Phoebe with you, being a minister of the church at Cenchrea, 2 that you accept her in the Lord, in a manner worthy of the saints, and stand beside her in whatever matter she may have need of you; because she also has stood before many, even me.
a) I use "brothers" here in the sense of peers or equals, in the sense that women really are "brothers." It is also easier in a concordant translation like this.

b) Paul repeats the root words for "minister," "accept" and "saints" first for himself and then for Phoebe. Is this chance or deliberate?

c) Paul uses three three related words that create a word play that many translations have tried to imitate in part. συνίστημι - stand together, παρίστημι - stand beside, and προΐστημι - stand before. This is why you see the repeated use of "help" in some translations. Here is the RSV and other translations.
    and help her in whatever she may require from you, for she has been a helper of many and of myself as well.
Of course, this is based on etymological fallacies, and some meaning may not be communicated properly, but maybe some meaning elements are clearer.

I hope to hear from some of you who are really blogging up the Greek. TC (whom I have lost momentarily, Mike, Rick, everybody. It doesn't have to contain a translation, just some insight, no matter how tangential, into Paul's use of language.

As always I owe a debt to Rotherham's Emphasized Bible.

Wednesday, June 25, 2008

Wordles for Bible books

Andy at Think Christian mentioned what for me is a very useful application of the web tool Wordle. Yipeng Huang has created Wordles for each of the New Testament books. Here are just two:

Matthew Galatians

Can you guess which books they represent? (Hint: Hold the mouse over the image for the answer.) Sorry that doesn't work on Blogger. Look at the link instead if you need help.

I believe that Yipeng used the NIV for this exercise. It would be interesting to compare translations of a small rather dense book like Jude and see how the Wordles are different. This works in English because it is an agglutinative language evolving toward being an isolating language. Portuguese and Koine would not work as well because of their richer morphology. This would be a great tool for a Sunday School teacher (or even Bible college professor) who wants to show major themes of a book based on word frequency.

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Monday, June 23, 2008

birds and wirds

First, let me offer a word of thanks to commenters on my previous two posts. It is always a thrill to interact with such a wild and woolly bunch.

The logic problem that always leaves me scratching my head is this: God wrote The Book. He intended for it to be translated. But he left us without the tools to do it properly. We lack the original authors to consult on their intentions. In most cases we have far too little data to make a comparative analysis of lexemes and phrases. We're often not sure of the original author or readers and the cultural milieu that they lived in. Too often, we just don't know. Our translations can become a projected solipsism. Grab it and create the meaning of your choice.

In Spanish or Portuguese if I ask you what you mean, I ask what did you "want to say?" ¿Que queria decir? or Que queria dizer? Jorge Luis Borges once remarked on a translation of one of his works, "It translated what I meant but not what I wanted to say." That "want to say" element of meaning is the part that leaves translators like myself feeling nervous. We can often tell you what God's Word means, but not what he wanted to say. But being God I suspect he could have set things up differently had he wished. Ambiguity and error don't take him by surprise. The one who created bird takes joy in the more than 10,000 species. He might find equal pleasure in the 6,912 wirds.


*6,912 is the number of living languages listed at http://www.ethnologue.com.

If anyone could track down the actual Borges quote I'd be grateful.