Tuesday, July 10, 2007

Bruce Waltke: Part 3

I'll talk to Dr. Waltke Thursday. Are there any more questions for him on the TNIV translation of the Hebrew scriptures?
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4 comments:

  1. Wayne LemanTue Jul 10, 10:44:00 PM

    My question is a general one having to do with translation of Hebrew poetic parallelism:

    "Has the CBT considered the fact that English conjunctions (e.g. and, or) block parallel meaning, unlike Hebrew where the conjunctions are part of the syntax of parallelism?

    For instance, in English we cannot say, "Angie is my wife and my spouse" nor can we say "Sue is my professor and teacher."

    Yet most English Bible translations, including NIV and TNIV, translate parallelism in Ps. 119:105 and many other passages with an English conjunction. The parallel meaning is permitted, however, in English by using appositive syntax, i.e. substituting a comma for the conjunction."

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  2. Eric RoweWed Jul 11, 07:39:00 AM

    How does he justify their decision to veer from the Hebrew text in such a way as to translate the word נשים (meaning "women") as
    "weaklings" in Isa 19:16; Jer 50:37; 51:30; and Nah 3:13?

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  3. Wayne LemanWed Jul 11, 08:24:00 AM

    Eric wrote:

    How does he justify their decision to veer from the Hebrew text

    It's a good question, Eric, and I'm sure he will answer well. I think I saw the CBT reason for their translation recently but I forget where. It's not veering from the Hebrew text, BTW, it's a more precise rendering of the figurative meaning of the Hebrew text. Translators can choose to translate figurative wordings literally or figuratively. Translating figurative meanings figuratively is more accurate. Literal translation of figurative meanings is OK for interlinears, or commentaries where there is room to discuss the original figure of speech.

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  4. Wayne LemanWed Jul 11, 10:39:00 AM

    Another question:

    What are the advantages and disadvantages of retaining the literal translation of the Hebrew cognate accusative of the TNIV in Song of Songs 1:2?

    Would "Let him kiss me again and again" be an accurate translation of the Hebrew figurative meaning?

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