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Friday, August 22, 2008

The Apostle Titus

Bill asked,
    How come no major translations are willing to call Titus & Epaphroditus "Apostles"? (2Cor.8:23 & Php.2:25)
This is an excellent question. To tell the truth I had never thought of this before.
    As for Titus, he is my partner and co-worker in your service; as for our brothers, they are messengers (apostoloi) of the churches, the glory of Christ. NRSV
The KJV, ESV, NRSV, (T)NIV and NLT do not have "apostles" in this verse. The ESV, NRSV, and NLT do have a footnote, while the KJV and T(NIV) do not. In historic versions, Coverdale and Douay-Rheims have "apostles" and Tyndale, Geneva Bible and all most subsequent translations in English do not have "apostles." Luther's translation does not have "apostles."

I cannot imagine why "apostles" is retained in Romans 16:7 and not in 1 Cor. 8:23 and Phil. 2:25.

Bill now wants to know,
    In short: is there a clergy-bias in our NT translation? And more importantly, when will it end?
IMO there is bias regarding the use of words like "those who rule" "bishop" "church" and so on, so yes there could well be bias here.

PS The Rotherham translation does have "apostle" for Titus and Epaphroditus. If you don't read Greek, get a copy of this Bible. It is truly outstanding in its fidelity to Greek.


At Sat Aug 23, 09:23:00 AM, Blogger Bill said...

Thanks, Suzanne. I hope this topic gets a lot more attention in the future.

The bible was made publicly available in England two years after Tyndale's death. The "authorized" version came out 73 years later.

It seems the release of the scriptures prompted sneakier ways of controlling their usage.

At Sun Aug 24, 06:19:00 PM, Blogger Rey said...

apostolos and junk has a wide usage doesn't it? I remember reading somewhere that it can mean messenger, sent one, yadda yadda but the definite article is what makes it the apostles.

I just remember that. I could very likely be wrong since I'm dumb. =)

At Thu Sep 04, 02:33:00 PM, Blogger Peter said...

Let alone Junia (


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