translation equivalence - in the Bible
except when it comes to Bible translation!
Look at this example:
Some critics of the TNIV dissed it for revising Matthew 1:18 from NIV:
she [Mary] was found to be with childto
she was found to be pregnantin the TNIV. The TNIV properly uses a common English translation equivalent for the underlying Greek, eurethe en gastri eksousa, literally,
she was found in the belly havingor with more natural English word order,
she was found having in the bellyBut English speakers today do not usually say that a woman is "with child". The NIV and other translations (KJV, RSV, ESV, NASB) which use that outdated phrase are not using a current translation equivalent. The HCSB and TNIV both use the word which is commonly used, "pregnant".
By the way, those who objected to the TNIV's not using "with child" cannot be objecting on the basis of literal translation since "with child" does not literally translate the Greek idiom "have in the belly". There is no word for "child" in the Greek text. There is just a tradition of saying "with child" in English Bibles in the KJV-Tyndale tradition. But tradition does not determine accuracy, naturalness, nor translation equivalence. Objective attention to the linguistic facts of the biblical languages and equal attention to the linguistic facts of a target language determine accuracy and naturalness. The result will be translation equivalence.
Next let's look at specific categories of translation equivalence when translating the Bible to English.
(to be continued)
Labels: translation equivalence